Q1 195.5m 3.09
Q2 311.8m 4.92
Q3 312.66m 4.93
Q4 390.9 m 6.09
voting shares = 130m & non-voting shares=123m+. & the number of shares had not changed during the period.
At the end, they say the Annualized EPS is 4.75. So how come this happen?
Based on simple mathematics, if the number of shares has not changed, the annualized EPS should be equal to the total of quarter EPS and here we can not see that relationship.
So dear experts, what is the reason behind this? What I didn't get here?
Appreciate your input Smile